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I am interested in representing $C_p$ as envelopes of curves $F(x,y,a)=0$, where\begin{align} C_p=\{(x,y)\in\mathbb{R}^2:|x|^p+|y|^p=1\}. \end{align} “Interesting” means it is not something like $F(x,y,a) = |x|^p + |y|^p - 1$.

Example ($p=\frac{2}{3}$)

In this case, the family of ellipses $F(x,y,a)=\left(\dfrac{x}{a}\right)^2+\left(\dfrac{y}{1-a}\right)^2=1$ has an its envelope $|x|^{\frac{2}{3}}+|y|^{\frac{2}{3}}=1$.

I tried to generalize the case where $p=\frac{2}{3}$, but it seemed impossible.

Question

For which values of $p>0$ does there exist a family of curves $F(x,y,a)=0$ whose envelope produces $C_p$? Is $p=\frac{2}{3}$ special, or is there a general construction?

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2 Answers 2

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Indeed, $p=\frac{2}{3}$ is not special; there is a general construction, for which I define

$$F(x,y,a):= \frac{|x|^q}{a^r} + \frac{|y|^q}{(1-a)^r} - 1.\tag{1}$$

The envelope is found by eliminating $a$ from the system

$$F(x,y,a) = 0, \tag{2}$$ $$\frac{\partial F}{\partial a}(x,y,a) = 0. \tag{3}$$

From $(3)$ we obtain $-r |x|^q a^{-r-1} + r |y|^q (1-a)^{-r-1} = 0$ which, assuming $r \neq 0$, we rearrange to separate $x$ and $y$:

$$\frac{|x|^q}{a^{r+1}} = \frac{|y|^q}{(1-a)^{r+1}}.$$

Taking the $(r+1)$-th root of both sides, and letting $k = \dfrac{q}{r+1}$, gives $\dfrac{|x|^k}{a} = \dfrac{|y|^k}{1-a}$, or

$$|x|^k = a(|x|^k + |y|^k).$$

This gives us explicit expressions for $a$ and $1-a$:

$$a = \frac{|x|^k}{|x|^k + |y|^k},\qquad 1-a = 1 - \frac{|x|^k}{|x|^k + |y|^k} = \frac{|y|^k}{|x|^k + |y|^k}.\tag{4}$$

Substitute $(4)$ back into the original family equation $(1,2)$ to get

$$|x|^q \left( \frac{|x|^k + |y|^k}{|x|^k} \right)^{\!\!r} + |y|^q \left( \frac{|x|^k + |y|^k}{|y|^k} \right)^{\!\!r} = 1,$$ or $$(|x|^k + |y|^k)^r \left( \dfrac{|x|^q}{|x|^{kr}} + \dfrac{|y|^q}{|y|^{kr}} \right) = 1.$$ Recalling that $k = \dfrac{q}{r+1}$, we have $q = kr + k$, which implies $q - kr = k$. Thus

$(|x|^k + |y|^k)^r ( |x|^k + |y|^k) = 1$, or $$(|x|^k + |y|^k)^{r+1} = 1.$$

Taking the $(r+1)$-th root gives

$$|x|^k + |y|^k = 1.$$

This is the curve $C_p$ where $p = k$. The envelope of the family is the curve $C_p$ where $p = \dfrac{q}{r+1}$.

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    $\begingroup$ In eqn 1, you have $F(x,y,a) = 1$, while in eqn 2 it is $F(x,y,a) = 0$. It would make sense if the second equality sign in eqn 1 was a minus sign. That is, your $F$ is the OP's $F$ minus $1$. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18 at 17:45
  • $\begingroup$ @JohnBentin thank you for pointing that out, hopefully there is nothing wrong with my interpretation of the problem. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18 at 18:45
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    $\begingroup$ (+1) It looks OK to me now. If you don't like my edit, you can revert to your original version. $\endgroup$ Commented 2 days ago
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The family of ellipses $$F(x,y,a):\frac{x^2}{a^{\frac 2p-1}}+\frac{y^2}{(1-a)^{\frac 2p-1}}=1\quad\text{for } 0<a<1$$ has an envelope of $C_p:|x|^p+|y|^p=1$ when $0<p\leq 2$.

We restrict to the first quadrant by symmetry. The point $(a^{\frac 1p},(1-a)^{\frac 1p})$ clearly lies on both $F(x,y,a)$ and $C_p$. To check that it is a tangency point, implicitly differentiate to get $$F: \frac{dy}{dx}=-\left(\frac{1-a}{a}\right)^{\frac 2p-1}\frac{x}{y}$$ $$C_p: \frac{dy}{dx}=-\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)^{p-1}$$

At $(a^{\frac 1p},(1-a)^{\frac 1p})$, both derivatives equal $-\left(\frac{1-a}{a}\right)^{\frac 1p-1}$, so the curves are indeed tangent at that point.

Once this tangency point is set, one can check that $\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}$ for $C_p$ is at most that of the ellipse when $p\leq 2$. Hence, the ellipse is inscribed in $C_p$. As $a$ varies from $0$ to $1$, the $x$-coordinate of the tangency point $a^{\frac 1p}$ also varies from $0$ to $1$, so the family of ellipses indeed generates $C_p$ as its envelope.

As in your example, $p=\frac{2}{3}$ yields the family $\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{x^2}{(1-a)^2}=1$ you describe.

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