It is well known that the eigenvalues $(\lambda_i)_i$ of a traceless square $n\times n$ matrix $M$ (with no other assumptions) check : \begin{equation} \sum_{i=1}^n \lambda_i = 0 \end{equation}
For $2\times 2$ traceless matrices, it obviously entails that if $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $M$, so is $-\lambda$.
Can this result be generalized in saying that for any traceless $n\times n$ matrix, if $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $M$, so is $-\lambda$ ?
Without any further assumptions on $M$, I think this counter example addresses the question : \begin{equation} \begin{bmatrix} 3 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & -2 & 3 \\ 4 & 0 & -1 \end{bmatrix} \end{equation}
But are there special case of square matrices $M$ for which this assertion would be true ?