I have a project with few dlls. I would like to change one of them to framework 4.0, but not the other ones. The result will be that a framework 2.0 dll is using a framework 4.0 dll. Is that ok, or problematic?
Thanks.
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Why would you want to do something like this? If you're thinking of avoiding installing .net4 then you'll have so much trouble deploying your extra dll.gideon– gideon2012-06-18 06:18:49 +00:00Commented Jun 18, 2012 at 6:18
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The problem is that other projects on the same server, sometimes use my dll. The one i want to change to framework 4.0. I can't force them all to upgrade the framework.Itay.B– Itay.B2012-06-18 06:21:27 +00:00Commented Jun 18, 2012 at 6:21
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1 Answer
No - a project which targets .NET 2 can't refer to a library targeting .NET 4. Imagine you tried to deploy it on a machine which only supported .NET 2 - you couldn't actually use your .NET 2 assembly anyway, so what's the point of making it target .NET 2 in the first place?
It makes sense to target a .NET 2 library from a .NET 4 project, but not the other way round.
2 Comments
Itay.B
What if the machine supports both 2.0 and 4.0, will it work? For the question why, please look at the answer I gave Gideon. Thank you for your time.
Jon Skeet
@Itay.B: The point is that it won't build, precisely because it's not useful. If you can only use your library on machines with .NET 4 (which is the case because of the reference to a .NET 4 library) then you should make it target .NET 4.