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Something that I've noticed is that, although it seems relatively rare for philosophers to make substantive distinctions between "Morals" and "Ethics," this distinction is extremely common in other contexts. I remember being taught this distinction in high school, as well as in an undergraduate history course, and it seems fairly common in the context of "professional ethics". Although this isn't a rigorous demonstration, if I Google "Morals vs Ethics", I find thousands of results "explaining" the difference in reasonably consistent terms: roughly that morals are personal beliefs or values internally held; while ethics are external rules or principles that are imposed by society or its institutions.

Despite not appearing to be grounded in the way that philosophers talk about morality, this distinction does appear to be pretty significant in American folk morality, and is even actively disseminated through educational and professional institutions. In this context, the distinction appears to be an opinionated one: it concerns the "ethical" obligation that one has to follow professional regulations whether or not they conform to personal "morality".

What are the origins of this distinction being used in this way? Does it have deep etymological roots in this history of the two words, or is it something that has been more recently transplanted onto them? If so, when? Would I be correct in intuiting that it is tied up with professional standards or does it have a broader history that does not entirely factor though those sorts of practices?

I'm not quite sure if this is an appropriate question for Philosophy Stack Exchange, and will gladly move it elsewhere if requested. I'm aware that there are other questions on this site concerning the difference between morals and ethics, but none of them appear to address the particular history of the vernacular distinction between the terms.

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    Mores was the Latin counterpart of ethos. In my Intro to Ethics class they would assimilate the difference to the question, "What should I do?" vs. the question, "How should I live?" This was similar to Kant's distinction between a Doctrine of Right and a Doctrine of Virtue. Commented yesterday
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    I think it amounts to being able to say: "I get to be right about this and they are wrong about that." In other words, a distinction without a difference. Commented yesterday
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    The big problem is that the folk distinction begs several questions that are crucial to philosophy. After all "ethics" do not appear out of nowhere. Commented yesterday
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    There is no philosophically relevant distinction between "ethics" and "morality": those words can be and are used interchangeably (and both apply to both indivuals and groups/societies, to both virtues and rights). The particular linguistic phenomenon that the OP has observed is very recent - it only starts roughly in 1980. Commented yesterday
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    The most common example of the current distinction is attorney-client privilege where legal ethics takes precedence over an attorneys morals. Commented yesterday

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Short answer

In common English language, there is no difference. It is just Greek vs. Latin roots for words meaning the same. Your findings also do not concur with anything I know from philosophy (see this answer of mine for context, reference, and etymology).

In philosophy, though, there is one philosopher in particular who famously made a difference between ethics and morals: Immanuel Kant. That it is Kant who did this is not a fluke, but due to the German use of the words at the time. Here, Ethics is about everything freedom or about empirical rules for wellbeing, while Morals is about the rational analysis of the laws of freedom.

Long answer

All quotations from: Immanuel Kant, Groundwork of the Metaphysics of Morals: A German-English Edition, Mary Gregor and Jens Timmermann (eds., trs.), Cambridge University Press, 2011

All rational cognition is either material and considers some object, or formal and occupied merely with the form of the understanding and of reason itself, and with the universal rules of thinking as such, regardless of differences among its objects. Formal philosophy is called LOGIC, whereas material philosophy, which has to do with determinate objects and the laws to which they are subject, is once again twofold. For these laws are either laws of nature, or of freedom. The science of the first is called PHYSICS, that of the other is ETHICS; the former is also called doctrine of nature, the latter doctrine of morals. (AA: IV 387)

Here, it seems like there was no difference, since the science of the laws of freedom is called ethics OR doctrine of morals. That is not the whole story, though:

In this way there arises the idea of a twofold metaphysics, a metaphysics of nature and a metaphysics of morals [Metaphysik der Sitten]. Physics will thus have its empirical, but also a rational part; so too will ethics, though here the empirical part might in particular be called practical anthropology, the rational part actually moral science [Moral]. (AA: IV 388)

Here, at least in the German original, there is a difference: while ethics are all systemic endeavours regarding the laws of freedom, morals proper are strictly about the rational and, in turn, not about the empirical part.

The commentary explains where this is coming from, explaining why Timmermann differs here from the classic Gregor translation:

IV388.13 Moral] 'moral science'. For want of a better word, one archaism replaces another to English a third. In the eighteenth century, Moral was used for the systematic study of morality, but not for morality itself (Sittlichkeit, Moralität). Like most translators, Gregor uses 'morals' for Moral, but also - as in the title of the book - for Sitten (people's mores), i.e. there is no way of telling from her translation whether Kant is speaking about the principle of moral conduct or of moral thought (see for instance IV440.30). Neither 'ethics' nor 'moral philosophy' is available to translate Moral because they are used for Ethik and Moralphilosophie respectively, and Moral is a somewhat broader notion than either. 'Moral science' is the only feasible option. (pp. 161-62)

Thus, the reason why Kant can make this difference is that in German, there already was a difference in the use of the words.

I also am pretty certain Kant wrote somewhere that another valid use of "ethics" is about "that which is good for me", ie. that which works towards my individual wellbeing, although I cannot find the source at the moment.

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    The words "Sitten" and "Sittlichkeit" sound rather oldfashioned to me (and definitely even more so the Dutch synonyms "zeden" and "zedelijkheid"). English doesn't seem to have a single term that corresponds to "Sittlichkeit" ("public morals" or "public manners", perhaps). French "moeurs" and English "manners" seem to have a far less 'moralistic' connotation than "Sitten" (perhaps due to German protestantism?). It's funny that German has both "Sitten" and "Sittlichkeit" where the first word is broader than merely ethical norms, but the second one seems to have a stronger ethical connotation. Commented 20 hours ago
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    @mudskipper 'English doesn't seem to have a single term that corresponds to "Sittlichkeit" ("public morals" or "public manners"...' Propriety seems spot on to public morality and decorum for the latter. As for the difference in English association of morality and ethics, I would simply posit that morality has been used largely within religious contexts and ethics in secular contexts such that the first is intuitively more emotional and the latter more intellectual with holy men avowed to be moral and lawyers ethical. In fact, I wouldn't flinch at the notion that ethics are sometimes immoral. Commented 18 hours ago
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    @mudskipper Actually, "Sitten" is much closer to the original Latin mores, as in "what people usually behave like". In exactly that sense, it is still used, like in "Tischsitten", which basically means nothing but "table manners". So yeah, "Sitten", "mores", and "manners" seem closer in use. That is not what my answer is about, though. My answer is about a) the use described in the question - to my knowledge - not being in line with any of the greater works and writers in philosophy, and b) a different philosophical use that still permeates some central European (legal) spheres Commented 17 hours ago
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    @mudskipper Well, that's kind of the point: the question asks about an arbitrary use of the word. I point out that that's not a usual distinction in common English or in philosophy, hence I can't speak about it's origin. What I can speak of, though, is a different conceptual distinction between those words in philosophy that has had quite an impact. Thus, the answer is threefold in this sense. Commented 17 hours ago
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    I see, I guess we each focused on different aspects of the post :) Indeterminism in action... Commented 17 hours ago
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The only real difference between morals and ethics is that the term 'morals' has a decidedly Christian religious connotation. I mean, according to my dictionary etymologically the term 'morals' is derived from a 6th century book by Saint Gregory the Great titled "Moralia", which was an exposition on the Book of Job. The terms 'ethics', by contrast, comes from the pre-Christian Greek philosophical phrase "hē ēthikē tekhnē", which means (roughly) 'the science of character'. 'Morals' tends to sound a bit more 'preachy' for that reason.

Which term you should use is mostly a matter of what audience you're speaking to and what subject you're speaking on. If you're dealing with a Christian audience or topic, 'morals' is more appropriate. Secular academic philosophy tends to prefer the term 'ethics', both for its Aristotelean roots and its more neutral tone. Regular people generally don't think too much about the distinction and are usually more habituated to the term 'morals', but in some cases they may find that term politically offensive. You pays your money and you takes your chances…

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  • +1 For staying grounded. Commented 19 hours ago
  • +1 This validates my intuitions. Great sleuthing. Commented 18 hours ago
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In this context, the distinction appears to be an opinionated one: it concerns the "ethical" obligation that one has to follow professional regulations whether or not they conform to personal "morality".

The word "morality" and "ethics" and the adjectives "moral" and "ethical" can be used interchangeably, and are often used interchangeably (also outside philosophical discourse).

There seems to be some linguistic drift going on however. If you look at the Google Ngram viewer for the entry "ethics, morality", then it is very remarkable that

  • Around 1800, "morality" was much more frequent
  • From 1800 to 1920 the words drifted closer together
  • From 1920 to 1980 they had approx. the same frequency
  • Since 1980 they started to drift apart, so that currently "ethics" is significantly more frequent

This also happens to very roughly correlate with a frequency drift of the words "individual" and "social". Those two words started to drift apart since about 1940, so that currently "social" is much more frequent. Now, when you look at the bigram frequencies it also appears that "ethics" is more closely associated with "social", whereas "morals" is more closely associated with "individual". Since about 1900 the bigram "social ethics" starts to become much more frequent than "social morality". However, the bigrams "individual ethics" and "individual morality" show rougly the same frequencies.

So, to make the observation more precise: Rougly since 1980 the word "ethics" becomes much more frequent than "morality". There also appears to be a somewhat longer linguistic trend that associates "ethics" more closely with "social" and "morality" more with "individual".

One cause of this, surely, must be the rise of applied ethics in the form of explicit "business ethics", bioethics, medical ethics, computer ethics, and the like. All of those only started to take off roughly since the 1980's. Another cause could also be increased secularisation (since "morality" is associated more with religion and the focus in religious education or proselitizing is usually on invividual morality).


Wittgenstein famously advised us to "don’t think, but look!" (PI 66). That is, don't invent etymological rationalizations or "just-so" stories about the meaning of words and about how those meanings came about, but consider the actual data and see how words diffused in actual usage. The Ngram viewer and large text corpora now give us the tools to look at raw linguistic data (which then, of course, still need to be correlated with their social sources and contexts). To explore the difference between "ethics" and "moral" it's also pretty remarkable to see the development of the bigrams "ethical policy, moral policy" (again divergenging sharply since the 1980's) and compare this to "ethical values, moral values". Or look at "unethical versus immoral".

To summarize (=rationalize) the difference I would say that - since about the 1970's, 1980's, due to the rise of so-called applied ethics, "ethical"/"unethical" has come to more closely connotate the ethics of a particular social role (especially of professional roles), while "moral"/"immoral" stayed closer to its existing meanings, connotating the ethics of a person seen as individual person. (In both cases we're talking about moral/ethical norms and values, however.)

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    Wittgenstein famously advised us to "don’t think, but look!" (PI 66). That is, don't invent etymological rationalizations or "just-so" stories about the meaning of words and about how those meanings came about, but consider the actual data and see how words diffused in actual usage." Pinker similarly is skeptical about etymological claims. Commented 18 hours ago
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See the Daimonion of Socrates (Wikipedia link). This is a first clear articulation of conscience, seperate from game-theory self-interest, or holding to divine laws. Biologically, I would describe conscience as exactly that, the experience of collective benefits of certain behaviours and values, as more important than personal benefit of eschewing them. That is, our eusociality, our ability to cooperate, feeling more valuable than self-interest.

I argue here that Socrates is paradigmatic in defining philosophy from other wisdom traditions: Weren't there any philosophers from Africa, America or the Middle East before Socrates? His 'martyrdom' for wisdom, his choice to give up his life and drink hemlock rather than recant his views which he described his conscience or daimonion as dictating, had a profound influence on Western thought exactly because he was saying, this behaviour of Socratic dialogue, and the challenge to 'piety' of the Euthyphro Dilemma, which I'd say is the core of what got him a death sentence, that these were values that could enable something about a collective holding to them, worth giving up his life for.

Plato took Socratic dialogue and the math-mysticism of Pythagoras to create his Academy, and so academia. Aristotle's Lyceum modelled the aspiration to universal education, and so universities. In this conscience, and a mutual interest in finding the truth, wins above rhetoric and sophism, over formal debate based on winning over an audience. Science requires a personal adherence to it's standards, not simply a wish for prestige by any means. We see this manifested in how scandalous scientific fraud is, to distort results like data dredging eg p-hacking, can disqualify someone from any credibility in their scientific work.

So, I would describe this as an articulation of morality, of the personal experience of the moral weight of actions, of when collective benefits are felt to outweigh any personal gain. This is key to any military, a soldier must be willing to die for their polity, and that is a core feeling, that defending a collective is worth sacrificing the personal, which enables civilisation, cities and polities. See Hume's "Reason is, and ought only to be the slave of the passions, and can never pretend to any other office than to serve and obey them", which highlights that felt motivations are fundamental, and reasoning can only come after.

Ethics however is not about the personal feelings, the inner conscience, but about persuading others how they should behave. This I argue fundamentally depends on intersubjective reasoning, here: Is the Categorical Imperative Simply Bad Math? :) That is, ethics must appeal to or educate the conscience.

Moral Foundations theory (Wikipedia link) is based on research showing there are core cultural universals, that seem to have evolved to support prosocial behaviour, eg a drive for fairness/justice. We can see this iterating from Ancient Greek myths about how bad absolute rulers eg Sisyphus, Minos, and Midus, could in some sense escape accountability in their lifetimes, but not beyond that; up to the Abrahamic idea that im this life, no one is above the law, which has enabled larger scale cooperation (at least, for now..).

There seem then to be core drives which evolved to let us cooperate, which we relate to conscience, morality, and the felt moral weight of actions. Then there is ethics, which aims to appeal to educate and refine the consistency of how we act on our moral feelings.

There is a failed assumption to intersubjectivity. There is a low but stable number of sociopaths and psychopaths across all societies. The gains from collective cooperation, are always being tested by people who simply do not feel the intrusion of conscience that most people feel. Machiavelli is the philosopher who spoke to this kind of realpolitik most clearly. I would argue game-theory is even more fundamental than conscience and morality. However virtuous and noble, genes that don't replicate leave the genepool. Ethical reasoning seeks to persuade others to hold to unstable equilibria for collective benefit, to take the Prisoner's Dilemma choice of net benefit. That is the reasoning idealistic mode, persuading others to be good serves our mutual interests. But we all know an unreasoned selfishness is there too, testing whether the sacrifices we make to collaborate are truly worthwhile. Socrates had a conscience that overpowered his survival instinct, easily heroised, harder to live. This is the tension between idealistic universalising ethics, and felt morality where we wish to be heroes -even martyrs- but mostly, are not.

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    You seem to be a cat person. You systematically misspell the words "persuade" and "persuasive" as "pursuade" and "pursuasive" :) Commented yesterday
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I believe the pragmatic distinction arose because of the different contexts in which the words are typically used. Preachers and prohibitionists preferred "moral" so lawyers and academics started preferring "ethical" to distinguish themselves from the riffraff. It became something of a class distinguisher, and from there the class that used "ethical" started injecting their prejudice that that their sense of ethics was higher and better than that of the hoi polloi back into the preferred terms

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  • I mean, you are not addressing the etymology there. Commented 10 hours ago
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Morals are the guidelines for conduct and ethics is the study of the system that generates these guidelines. So there could be a system of morality, like Jainism, that prescribes ahimsa (nonviolence) and ethics investigates how Jainism justifies it, why should we be nonviolent?

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    So it's like the difference between arithmetic and math. Commented yesterday
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    Yes, novices are taught arithmetic and veterans engage with math. Commented yesterday
  • Personally, this is how I make the distinction too. "Morals", to me, are the concrete "Do's and Don'ts", the rules that govern behaviour while "Ethics" are the rules that govern those that author Morals. Is if the moral is "You shall do no murder", then the ethic is "Human life is precious". Commented 21 hours ago

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