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Is there a non-recursive, explicit sequence of rational numbers that has $\sqrt{2}$ as a limit?

I know of rational sequences such as $x_{n+1}=(x_n+2/x_{n})/2$ and $q_n=[10^n\sqrt{2}]/10^n$ that have $\sqrt{2}$ as limit (as mentioned in this other post), though the first is defined by recursion, and the latter already has $\sqrt{2}$ in its explicit form, so I feel like they're missing the point of my question.

I wonder if is there a rational sequence $a_n$ that has $\sqrt{2}$ as limit whose terms can be written explicitly in terms of elementary functions that take $n$ as the argument. I've tried to find one but nothing seems to make sense. If there is not such a sequence, could you explain why?

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    $\begingroup$ Comments have been moved to chat; please do not continue the discussion here. Before posting a comment below this one, please review the purposes of comments. Comments that do not request clarification or suggest improvements usually belong as an answer, on Mathematics Meta, or in Mathematics Chat. Comments continuing discussion may be removed. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18 at 19:59
  • $\begingroup$ Are infinite products (with each factor a fraction) permissible under the "explicit rational sequence" rule? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18 at 20:41

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If you consider $n!$ as an elementary function then you may take

$$a_n=\frac{4^n(2n-1)!!^2}{(4n-1)!!}=\frac{4^n(2n)!^3}{n!^2(4n)!}$$

which converges to $\sqrt 2$ because it is a subsequence ($n\to 2n$) of this

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    $\begingroup$ And this can be writtn as $$a_n=\dfrac{4^n\binom{2n}n}{\binom{4n}{2n}}$$ $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18 at 18:59
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    $\begingroup$ So you can get the limit using the asymptote for the central binomial coefficiients:$$\binom{2n}n\sim 4^n/\sqrt{n\pi}$$ en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Central_binomial_coefficient $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18 at 19:03
  • $\begingroup$ @ThomasAndrews absolutely, that's an easy way to calculate the limit! I didn't even bother as I started from that post which already had a proof hahaha. But that is way more straight-forward $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18 at 19:06
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    $\begingroup$ Well, my hint hides most of the proof in the known asymptote for the central binomials. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18 at 19:12
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    $\begingroup$ @FrancescoBollini no problem! It is a fun question! $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18 at 19:48
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Following up on J. W. Tanner’s suggestion (now moved to chat, sigh) to use ratios of Pell numbers, you can take $$a_n=2^n\frac{\bigl((1+2^n)^n+(1-2^n)^n\bigr)\bmod(4^n-2)}{\bigl((1+2^n)^n-(1-2^n)^n\bigr)\bmod(4^n-2)}.$$ To see this, let $p_n,q_n$ be the unique natural numbers such that $$\tag{$*$}(1\pm\sqrt2)^n=q_n\pm p_n\sqrt2$$ (so $p_n$ are the Pell numbers, and $q_n$ half the Pell–Lucas numbers). On the one hand, $(*)$ implies $$\begin{align*} q_n&=\frac{(1+\sqrt2)^n+(1-\sqrt2)^n}{2},\\ p_n&=\frac{(1+\sqrt2)^n-(1-\sqrt2)^n}{2\sqrt2}, \end{align*}$$ whence $$\frac{q_n}{p_n}\sim\frac{(1+\sqrt2)^n/2}{(1+\sqrt2)^n/(2\sqrt2)}=\sqrt2.$$ On the other hand, if we put $r=2^n$ and $m=4^n-2$, we have $$r^2\equiv2\pmod m,$$ hence there is a ring homomorphism $\mathbb Z[\sqrt2]\to\mathbb Z/m\mathbb Z$ that reduces each integer modulo $m$, and maps $\sqrt2$ to $r$. Applying it to $(*)$, we obtain $$(1\pm r)^n\equiv q_n\pm p_nr\pmod m,$$ whence $$\begin{align*} (1+r)^n+(1-r)^n&\equiv 2q_n\phantom r\pmod m,\\ (1+r)^n-(1-r)^n&\equiv 2rp_n\pmod m. \end{align*}$$ But also $0<p_n<q_n<2^{n-1}$, i.e., $2rp_n,2q_n<m$, thus $$\begin{align*} \bigl((1+r)^n+(1-r)^n\bigr)\bmod m&=2q_n,\\ \bigl((1+r)^n-(1-r)^n\bigr)\bmod m&=2rp_n. \end{align*}$$ That is, $$a_n=\frac{q_n}{p_n}.$$ Note that nothing special about $r=2^n$ was used in the derivation above; you can take any integer $r$ larger than $(1+\sqrt2)^n$ or so, and $m=r^2-2$.

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A straightforward way is to use Stirling approximation $n! \sim \sqrt{2 \pi n}\left(\frac{n}{e}\right)^n$ which for $2n$ gives $(2n)! \sim \sqrt{2 \pi \cdot2n}\left(\frac{2n}{e}\right)^{2n}$. Then $\frac{(2n)!}{n!}=\sqrt{2} \frac{(2n)^{2n}}{n^n e^n}$ which one can solve for $\sqrt2$. Since $e$ is not rational we need to replace it by a rational approximation. Here $(1+\frac{1}{n})^n$ would not work because it does not converge to $e$ fast enough, but one can use $n^2$ in place of $n$ and replace $e$ by $(1+\frac1{n^2})^{n^2}$ and this does converge to $e$ fast enough.

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We have

$$\sqrt 2 = \left(1-\frac{1}{2}\right)^{-1/2}=\sum_{k=0}^\infty\binom{-1/2}{k}\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)^k$$

So a sequence of rationals converging to $\sqrt 2$ is

$$a_n=\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{-1/2}{k}\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)^k$$

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    $\begingroup$ This is recursive. The OP wants a formula with neither $\Sigma$ nor $\Pi$. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 19 at 9:00
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    $\begingroup$ @MikhailKatz But then why OP accepted the answer that uses factorials? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 19 at 12:17
  • $\begingroup$ Because he considers $n!$ to be "elementary". $\endgroup$ Commented 2 days ago
  • $\begingroup$ @MikhailKatz I don't find that in the text of the question. $\endgroup$ Commented 2 days ago
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I am not sure whether an infinite product whose factors are fractions qualifies under the restriction "explicit rational sequence". In case it does, the following should be relevant.

A useful resource for identifying relevant sequences is the OEIS (On-line Encyclopedia of Integer Sequences). In this case, one could search it for sqrt(2), which finds myriad sequences somehow related to or involving $\sqrt{2}$. Since I had an idea what I might be looking for, I relatively quickly identified an infinite product whose factors are fractions, with the numerators specified by sequence A016826 and the denominators specified by sequence A001539. I then used Wolfram Alpha to verify that

$$\prod_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(4n+2)^{2}}{(4n+1)(4n+3)} = \prod_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{1-\frac{1}{4(2n-1)^{2}}} = \frac{4}{3}\cdot\frac{36}{35}\cdot\frac{100}{99}\cdot\frac{196}{195}\cdot \ldots\ = \sqrt{2}$$

An alternate approach to identifying similar infinite products would be to search the literature with Google Scholar (or just plain Google) for Wallis-type infinite products.

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  • $\begingroup$ This is recursive. The OP wants a formula with neither $\Sigma$ nor $\Pi$. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 19 at 9:00
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    $\begingroup$ Good point, but I think he is looking for something more elementary. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 19 at 9:15

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