I am reading Dag Prawitz's "Natural Deduction: A Proof-Theoreritcal Study" and am confused by the proof of Theorem 1, Chapter 3 that:
If $\Gamma \vdash_{\mathsf{C}'} A$, then there is a deduction in $\mathsf{C}'$ of $A$ from $\Gamma$ in which the consequence of every application of the $\bot_\mathsf{C}$-rule is atomic.
where $\mathsf{C}'$ is the classical logic system without the $\lor$ or $\exists$ rules.
In the inductive step of this proof we transform the deduction $$\underline{[\lnot(B\rightarrow C)]} \\ \underline{\Sigma} \\ \underline{\bot} \\ (B\rightarrow C) \\ \Pi_1$$ 1
into
$$\underline{B \quad B \rightarrow C} \\ \qquad \qquad \underline{C \qquad \lnot C} \\ \qquad \qquad \underline{\bot} \\ \qquad \qquad [\lnot(B\rightarrow C)] \\ \qquad \qquad \underline{\Sigma}\\ \qquad \qquad \underline{\bot}\\ \qquad \qquad \underline{C}\\ \qquad \qquad \underline{(B \rightarrow C)}\\ \qquad \qquad \Pi_1$$ 2
Where my confusion arises is that Prawitz then states that the new applications of the $\bot_\mathsf{C}$ rules all have consequences which have degree less than that of $B \rightarrow C$, but to me it seems that this new proof has $\lnot(B \rightarrow C)$ as a consequence of a $\bot_\mathsf{C}$ rule and this would have a higher degree than that of $B \rightarrow C$. I'd appreciate it if someone could point out where I'm going wrong.
Also, if my formatting is confusing, I have attached the reference proofs from the book.