Answer to both questions is "no". Take
$$X=[0,1]^2$$
$$U_n=\bigg(\frac{1}{n}-\epsilon_n,\frac{1}{n}+\epsilon_n\bigg)\times[0,1]$$
We chose each $\epsilon_n$ to be small enough so that $U_n$ are pairwise disjoint, e.g. $\epsilon_n=\frac{1}{3n}$. We then define
$$V=(0,1)\times[0,\frac{1}{2})$$
$$U=V\cup\bigcup_{n=0}^\infty U_n$$
In other words this is a "fat" comb space. Fat to make it open, but it still has similar properties: every point in $\{0\}\times[0,1]$ belongs to its closure. However both answers are "no" if $p\in\{0\}\times(\frac{1}{2},1]$.