In a post I made the other day about common mode signal and op-amps, some exchange in the comments led me to note that the definition of \$V_{\text{CM}}\$ seemed rather arbitrary. The canonical definition of \$V_{\text{CM}}\$ is \$:=\frac{V_1+V_2}{2}\$. Conversely, the (rather natural) definition of the differential mode signal is \$V_{\text{D}}:=V_1-V_2\$. Both of the original voltages \$V_1\$ and \$V_2\$ (as measured against a shared reference) can be reconstructed using \$V_{\text{CM}}\$ and \$V_{\text{D}}\$ in the obvious form:
$$\begin{align}&V_1=V_{\text{CM}}+\frac{1}{2}V_{\text{D}} \\&V_2=V_{\text{CM}}-\frac{1}{2}V_{\text{D}} \quad (\dagger_1)\end{align}$$
In the greater context of op-amp analysis, the common mode and differential signals become relevant because (apparently) the op-amp's gain function acts on them differently. The equation that is used to portray this behavior is shown below:
$$\begin{align}V_{\text{output}}=A_{\text{D}}V_{\text{D}}+A_{\text{CM}}V_{\text{CM}}\end{align}$$
A differential amplifier is then (apparently) designed to minimize \$A_{\text{CM}}\$ and...well...modify \$A_{\text{D}}\$ as needed.
So here is my question. Why is it important to model the \$V_{\text{CM}}\$ term as the arithmetic average of the voltage signals? Consider any arbitrary function \$f\$ that takes as input \$V_1\$ and \$V_2\$...and let \$V_{\text{CM}^*}=f(V_1,V_2)\$. Then, so long as \$V_{\text{D}}\neq0\$, the two \$(\dagger_1)\$ equations can be rewritten as:
$$\begin{align}&V_1=V_{\text{CM}^*}+\alpha V_{\text{D}} \\&V_2=V_{\text{CM}^*}+\beta V_{\text{D}} \quad (\dagger_2)\end{align}$$
, where \$\alpha\$ and \$\beta\$ are, themselves, functions that depend on \$V_1\$ and \$V_2\$ (...and because \$V_D \neq 0\$, we can solve for these unknown values for any given non-equal \$V_1,V_2\$ pair using basic algebra).
I think my confusion may stem from the fact that I don't really understand what the PURPOSE of the \$V_{\text{CM}}\$ term actually is. The only thing I can think of is that \$V_{\text{CM}}\$ is specifically designed to capture the op-amp's noise when \$V_{\text{D}}=0\$...because for this scenario, the original definition of the common mode signal is the only definition that allows \$\dagger\$-like equations to be true (i.e. if \$V_1=V_2\$, then \$(\dagger_1)\$ still holds, where as none of the \$(\dagger_2)\$ equations would...as they are undefined for \$V_1=V_2\$). But if this is so, why not just write the \$V_{\text{output}}\$ equation as:
$$\begin{align}V_{\text{output}}=A_{\text{D}}V_{\text{D}}+\varepsilon \end{align}$$, where \$\varepsilon\$ is just some (measurable) static noise term that is always present in the circuit, regardless of voltage differences? Or is this convention rooted in some empirical finding where the aforementioned \$\varepsilon\$ (apparently) linearly scales with the average of the voltages sitting a little bit outside of the amplifiers input terminals?
