0
$\begingroup$

I am struggling to understand how the following is true for the fermionic creation/annihilation operators $a^\dagger, a$: $$[a^\dagger a, a]=-a$$

If someone could walk me through the math derivation of this, I would greatly appreciate it!

I see that $[a^\dagger a, a]= a^\dagger aa - a a^\dagger a = (1-a a^\dagger)a - a a ^\dagger a = a - 2 a a^\dagger a$ but I'm not sure how to simplify this further to get $-a$ at the end.

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

Your first step was already good. And then you can exploit $aa=0$.

$$\begin{align} [a^\dagger a, a] &=a^\dagger \underbrace{aa}_{=0}-aa^\dagger a \\ &=-aa^\dagger a \\ &=-a(1-aa^\dagger) \\ &=-a+\underbrace{aa}_{=0}a^\dagger \\ &=-a \end{align}$$

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ $aa=0$ is only true for fermions because the max occupation number in a state is 1, right? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 20, 2023 at 2:19
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ @photonica yes, it is only for fermions. $a^\dagger a^\dagger=0$ is because max occupation number is 1, and $aa=0$ is because min occupation number is 0. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 20, 2023 at 2:26
  • $\begingroup$ @photonica This follows from the anti-commutation relations. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 20, 2023 at 7:38

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Start asking to get answers

Find the answer to your question by asking.

Ask question

Explore related questions

See similar questions with these tags.