I was reading about how the implicit function theorem may be used to express eigenvalues of real symmetric matrices as functionals of the matrix on a neighborhood. I got stuck in equation (8), page 183 here: https://www.janmagnus.nl/papers/JRM011.pdf
Suppose $X_0$ is a real symmetric matrix with $X_0u_0 = \lambda_0u_0$ and $u_0'u_0 = 1$.
This equation claims that the presented derivative $$det\begin{bmatrix} \lambda_0 I - X_0 & u_0\\ 2u_0' & 0 \end{bmatrix}\neq 0$$if and only if $\lambda_0$ is a simple eigenvalue of $X_0$ and proceeds to say also that the determinant equals $-2$ times the product of all the other eigenvalues of $X_0$ except $\lambda_0$.
I am not sure how the author is able to make all these claims. How does he even compute the determinant? The most natural thought that comes to mind is using the formula for determinant for block matrices, but $\lambda_0I - X_0$ is not even invertible!
More importantly, I am not sure how this determinant being non-zero is connected to $\lambda_0$ being a simple eigenvalue of $X_0$.